Author | Message | Time |
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shadypalm88 | I've been stuck on this for some time now (sexy LaTeX rendering): [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/omg.png[/img] The only general techniques that I've been taught (excluding blind guessing) are substitution and integration by parts. Somewhat similar ones like [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/easier.png[/img] are much easier. With a substitution w = cos(2θ) it solves for: [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/easier_solved.png[/img] But this one I seemingly can't crack. Any advice? | March 5, 2006, 5:54 AM |
Yoni | That LaTeX is hot. Blindly integrating by parts is not the best way to solve that integral. Try using some trigonometric identities. Start with: cos^2(z) = 1 - sin^2(z) ... Continue with integration by parts, then think how to continue (this is a tricky one, so post again if you need more help). | March 5, 2006, 6:51 AM |
rabbit | That first one is relatively simple. You can use the S[u du] property on it, and you get S[sin[sup]3[/sup](z)cos[sup]3[/sup](z) dz] = -cos[sup]3[/sup](z) + C Well..assuming I did it correctly that is. | March 5, 2006, 3:01 PM |
shadypalm88 | [quote author=Yoni link=topic=14434.msg147626#msg147626 date=1141541514] That LaTeX is hot. Blindly integrating by parts is not the best way to solve that integral. Try using some trigonometric identities. Start with: cos^2(z) = 1 - sin^2(z) ... Continue with integration by parts, then think how to continue (this is a tricky one, so post again if you need more help). [/quote]I didn't end up using parts at all. This question comes from my calculus textbook and I have the answer to it, so I was able to check it. What I don't understand is that I got different answers depending on whether I used the identity for cosine or the identity for sine; and only the sine one matches the answer provided. [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/omg2.png[/img] Let w = sin(z) dw = cos(z) dz [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/omg3.png[/img] (sorry, seems to be no way to control the image's export size) Which doesn't seem to be equivavent to the expression that the salopes want: [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/omg4.png[/img] Let w = cos(z) dw = -sin(z) dz [img]http://misc.ionws.com/math/omg5.png[/img] Thoughts? | March 5, 2006, 4:48 PM |
Yoni | [quote author=rabbit link=topic=14434.msg147635#msg147635 date=1141570919] That first one is relatively simple. You can use the S[u du] property on it, and you get S[sin[sup]3[/sup](z)cos[sup]3[/sup](z) dz] = -cos[sup]3[/sup](z) + C Well..assuming I did it correctly that is. [/quote]Nope! You didn't. Try again! (Hint: d/dz sin[sup]3[/sup](z) != cos[sup]3[/sup](z) ...) shadypalm: Good job, it's easier than the way I thought of doing it. Both your solutions are correct. Don't forget the "+ C" at the end. The 2 functions you got are not equivalent with the same C - but they are equivalent with different C's. (i.e., their difference is a constant function.) | March 5, 2006, 8:42 PM |
shadypalm88 | [quote author=Yoni link=topic=14434.msg147648#msg147648 date=1141591375] Both your solutions are correct. Don't forget the "+ C" at the end. The 2 functions you got are not equivalent with the same C - but they are equivalent with different C's. (i.e., their difference is a constant function.) [/quote]Oh! I didn't think of that, but yeah, that makes sense. Cool, thanks for the help. (PS- I have the + C on paper but forgot to transcribe it into LaTeX.) | March 5, 2006, 9:27 PM |
Yoni | Actually you didn't, I see it in your images. | March 5, 2006, 10:55 PM |
rabbit | Bleh! I suck at integrals -.- | March 8, 2006, 3:29 AM |